Medium NCLEX Pharmacology SATA Practice Questions
Concept Explanation
Medium NCLEX Pharmacology SATA Practice Questions are multi-response assessment tools designed to evaluate a nursing student's ability to identify multiple correct therapeutic actions, side effects, or nursing interventions associated with specific medications. Unlike standard multiple-choice questions, Select-All-That-Apply (SATA) items require a higher level of clinical judgment because every option must be evaluated independently as a true or false statement. These questions often focus on high-alert medications, such as those discussed in cardiovascular pharmacology or endocrine treatments. To succeed, students must understand the mechanism of action, contraindications, and patient education points for various drug classes. According to the National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN), these items are critical for ensuring that entry-level nurses can provide safe and effective medication administration. Mastery involves recognizing patterns in side effects and knowing which adverse reactions require immediate provider notification.
Solved Examples
The following examples demonstrate the step-by-step logic required to solve SATA questions effectively.
- Question: A nurse is preparing to administer spironolactone to a patient with heart failure. Which findings should the nurse recognize as potential adverse effects? Select all that apply.
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Gynecomastia
- D. Muscle spasms
- E. Dehydration
- Identify the drug class: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic.
- Evaluate A: Potassium-sparing diuretics retain potassium, making hyperkalemia a primary risk. (Correct)
- Evaluate B: This is the opposite of the drug's effect. (Incorrect)
- Evaluate C: Spironolactone has anti-androgenic effects, which can cause breast tissue growth in men. (Correct)
- Evaluate D: Electrolyte imbalances like hyperkalemia can lead to muscle twitching or spasms. (Correct)
- Evaluate E: While it is a diuretic, its primary risk is electrolyte shifts rather than profound dehydration compared to loop diuretics, but it is generally not a "classic" hallmark like hyperkalemia. (Incorrect)
- Final Answer: A, C, D
- Question: A client is prescribed levothyroxine for hypothyroidism. What instructions should the nurse include in the teaching plan? Select all that apply.
- A. Take the medication with a full meal.
- B. Notify the provider if you experience palpitations.
- C. Expect therapy to be lifelong.
- D. Take the medication at bedtime.
- E. It may take several weeks to feel the full effect.
- Identify the drug: Levothyroxine is a thyroid hormone replacement.
- Evaluate A: It must be taken on an empty stomach for absorption. (Incorrect)
- Evaluate B: Palpitations indicate a dose that is too high (hyperthyroidism). (Correct)
- Evaluate C: Hypothyroidism usually requires permanent replacement. (Correct)
- Evaluate D: It should be taken in the morning to prevent insomnia. (Incorrect)
- Evaluate E: Thyroid hormones have a long half-life and take time to reach steady state. (Correct)
- Final Answer: B, C, E
- Question: Which of the following are signs of digoxin toxicity? Select all that apply.
- A. Visual disturbances (yellow halos)
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Bradycardia
- E. Increased appetite
- Identify the drug: Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside with a narrow therapeutic index.
- Evaluate A: Classic sign of toxicity. (Correct)
- Evaluate B: Digoxin slows the heart rate; toxicity usually causes bradycardia or heart block. (Incorrect)
- Evaluate C: GI upset is often the earliest sign of toxicity. (Correct)
- Evaluate D: Digoxin toxicity typically presents with a slow, irregular pulse. (Correct)
- Evaluate E: Anorexia (loss of appetite) is a sign, not increased appetite. (Incorrect)
- Final Answer: A, C, D
Practice Questions
Test your knowledge with these medium-level SATA questions. Remember to treat each option as a true/false statement.
1. A nurse is caring for a client receiving intravenous vancomycin. Which interventions are appropriate to prevent or monitor for complications? Select all that apply.
A. Monitor serum creatinine levels.
B. Infuse the medication over at least 60 minutes.
C. Assess for Red Man Syndrome.
D. Administer a rapid bolus if the patient is septic.
E. Monitor for ototoxicity.
2. A patient is prescribed prednisone for an acute exacerbation of asthma. Which side effects should the nurse discuss with the patient? Select all that apply.
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Increased risk of infection
C. Weight loss
D. Fluid retention
E. Hypokalemia
3. The nurse is teaching a client about new prescriptions for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which statements by the client indicate understanding? Select all that apply.
A. "I should keep the tablets in their original dark glass bottle."
B. "I can take up to 5 tablets before calling 911."
C. "I should sit down before taking a dose."
D. "A slight stinging sensation under the tongue is normal."
E. "I should swallow the tablet with a full glass of water."
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Practice Pharmacology4. A client with a history of DVT is being discharged on warfarin. Which food items should the nurse advise the client to consume in consistent amounts? Select all that apply.
A. Spinach
B. Bananas
C. Kale
D. Broccoli
E. Grapefruit juice
5. A nurse is reviewing the medication record of a patient with a new prescription for an ACE inhibitor. Which medications found in the record would require a follow-up with the provider? Select all that apply.
A. Spironolactone
B. Furosemide
C. Potassium chloride supplements
D. Ibuprofen
E. Acetaminophen
6. Which of the following are appropriate nursing actions when administering phenytoin? Select all that apply.
A. Perform frequent oral hygiene.
B. Monitor for nystagmus.
C. Stop the infusion immediately if a rash develops.
D. Mix the drug only with D5W for IV administration.
E. Monitor therapeutic drug levels.
7. A patient is receiving heparin therapy for a pulmonary embolism. Which findings would suggest a complication of this therapy? Select all that apply.
A. Platelet count of 90,000/mm³
B. Hematuria
C. Increased PTT
D. Ecchymosis
E. Tarry stools
8. The nurse is educating a patient about the side effects of albuterol. Which of the following should be included? Select all that apply.
A. Tremors
B. Bradycardia
C. Tachycardia
D. Hypoglycemia
E. Palpitations
Answers & Explanations
Review the reasoning behind each answer to strengthen your clinical judgment for the NCLEX.
- 1. Answers: A, B, C, E. Vancomycin is nephrotoxic (monitor creatinine) and ototoxic (monitor hearing). It must be infused slowly (at least 60 min) to prevent Red Man Syndrome, which is a flushing reaction caused by rapid histamine release. It is never given as a rapid bolus.
- 2. Answers: A, B, D, E. Corticosteroids cause hyperglycemia, immunosuppression, and sodium/water retention. They also cause potassium wasting (hypokalemia) and weight gain (not loss) due to fluid and increased appetite. For more on these effects, see our guide on endocrine medications.
- 3. Answers: A, C, D. Nitroglycerin is light-sensitive (dark bottle) and causes vasodilation, which can lead to orthostatic hypotension (sit down). A sting indicates the drug is active. Patients should call 911 if pain persists after the 1st dose, not the 5th. It is sublingual, not swallowed.
- 4. Answers: A, C, D. Warfarin works by inhibiting Vitamin K. Foods high in Vitamin K (leafy greens like spinach, kale, and broccoli) must be eaten in consistent amounts to avoid fluctuating INR levels. Bananas (potassium) and grapefruit (CYP450 interaction) are less critical for warfarin than Vitamin K consistency.
- 5. Answers: A, C, D. ACE inhibitors cause potassium retention. Combining them with spironolactone or potassium supplements increases the risk of life-threatening hyperkalemia. NSAIDs like ibuprofen can decrease the effectiveness of ACE inhibitors and increase the risk of renal impairment.
- 6. Answers: A, B, C, E. Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia (oral care), toxicity (nystagmus), and Stevens-Johnson syndrome (rash). It has a narrow therapeutic range. However, it is only compatible with Normal Saline (0.9% NaCl), not D5W, which causes precipitation.
- 7. Answers: A, B, D, E. A drop in platelets (below 150,000) suggests Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT). Hematuria, ecchymosis, and tarry stools (melena) are signs of active bleeding. An increased PTT is the expected therapeutic effect, not a complication, unless it is significantly above the target range.
- 8. Answers: A, C, E. Albuterol is a sympathomimetic beta-2 agonist. It stimulates the "fight or flight" response, leading to tremors, tachycardia, and palpitations. It does not cause bradycardia or hypoglycemia.
Quick Quiz
1. A nurse is preparing to administer lithium to a client. Which of the following should the nurse monitor to prevent toxicity?
- A Serum calcium levels
- B Sodium levels
- C Daily weight
- D Blood glucose
Check answer
Answer: B. Sodium levels
2. Which medication is considered the antidote for an overdose of benzodiazepines?
- A Naloxone
- B Acetylcysteine
- C Flumazenil
- D Protamine sulfate
Check answer
Answer: C. Flumazenil
3. A client is prescribed rifampin for tuberculosis. Which side effect is expected?
- A Peripheral neuropathy
- B Orange-colored urine
- C Tinnitus
- D Constipation
Check answer
Answer: B. Orange-colored urine
4. When administering a loop diuretic like furosemide, which electrolyte imbalance is the most common?
- A Hyperkalemia
- B Hypokalemia
- C Hypernatremia
- D Hypocalcemia
Check answer
Answer: B. Hypokalemia
5. Which of the following is a key teaching point for a patient starting an SSRI?
- A The medication works immediately
- B Stop the drug if you feel better
- C Report any increased suicidal thoughts
- D Avoid all dairy products
Check answer
Answer: C. Report any increased suicidal thoughts
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What makes a SATA question "Medium" difficulty?
Medium difficulty SATA questions typically involve common medications but require the nurse to distinguish between expected side effects and dangerous adverse reactions. They often test the integration of lab values, such as potassium or creatinine, with drug administration.
How many options can be correct in an NCLEX SATA question?
On the NCLEX, a SATA question can have as few as one correct answer or as many as all of the options. You must evaluate each choice independently as a true/false statement without trying to meet a specific "quota" of correct answers.
Why is potassium monitoring so common in pharmacology questions?
Potassium is a critical electrolyte for cardiac conduction, and many common drug classes, including diuretics, ACE inhibitors, and digoxin, directly affect or are affected by potassium levels. For more practice on these interactions, visit our general pharmacology page.
What is the best strategy for answering SATA questions?
The most effective strategy is the "True/False" method, where you treat each option as an individual question. Avoid comparing options to one another, as this can lead to overthinking and choosing incorrect distractors.
Are there partial credits for SATA questions on the NCLEX?
Yes, under the Next Generation NCLEX (NGN) scoring rules, partial credit is awarded for SATA items using a +/- scoring system. You earn a point for each correct selection and lose a point for each incorrect selection, with a minimum possible score of zero for the item.
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Practice Pharmacology
Reviewed by
Michael Danquah, MS, PhD
Dr. Michael Danquah is a professor of pharmaceutical sciences and founder of several educational technology platforms focused on improving student learning and performance.
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